Question 176744: why is 3 to the zero power equals 1?
Found 2 solutions by Mathtut, MathTherapy: Answer by Mathtut(3670) (Show Source): Answer by MathTherapy(10551) (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website! If we divide 10 by 10 or x by x, or 100 by 100, or any expression by itself, the result will always be 1 (anything divided by itself equals 1).
Based on the Law of Exponents, when dividing expressions with the same base, we need to subtract the exponent in the denominator from the exponent in the numerator.
All expressions without any exponents actually have an exponent of 1. For example, 10 is actually , x is , 100 is , and so on. When we divide any of these expressions, such as by itself, we’re supposed to get a result of 1, just like when we divide by itself. This is because anything divided by itself equals 1 (see above). Furthermore, based on the Law of Exponents, and as stated above, divided by equals which equals . Did we not say before that ÷ , or anything divided by itself equals 1? Therefore, it follows that:
÷ = 1. Also, ÷ = which equals .
This means that ÷ = = = 1.
I hope you now understand why any expression to the power of 0 (zero) always equals 1.
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