SOLUTION: if f(x)=x-3 divided by 2 then f(1 divided by 4) is equal to

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Question 385138: if f(x)=x-3 divided by 2 then f(1 divided by 4) is equal to
Found 3 solutions by mananth, stanbon, rfer:
Answer by mananth(16946) About Me  (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website!

f%28x%29=%28x-3%29%2F2
f(1/4)= ((1/4)-3)/2
f(1/4)=-11/8
...
m.ananth@hotmail.ca

Answer by stanbon(75887) About Me  (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website!
if f(x)=x-3 divided by 2 then f(1 divided by 4) is equal to
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f(x)=(x-3)/2
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f(1/4) = (1/4 - 3)/2
f(1/4) = (-11/4)/2
f(1/4) = -11/8
================
Cheers,
Stan H.

Answer by rfer(16322) About Me  (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website!
f(1/4)=(1/4-3)/2
f(1/4)=(-2 3/4)/2
f(1/4)=(-11/4)/2
f(1/4)=-11/8