SOLUTION: I do not know how to prove "For the function {{{f(x)=1/(1-x)}}}, prove that for all integers n>=0, {{{ (f^n) (0)=n! }}}" by using induction.

Algebra ->  Proofs -> SOLUTION: I do not know how to prove "For the function {{{f(x)=1/(1-x)}}}, prove that for all integers n>=0, {{{ (f^n) (0)=n! }}}" by using induction.       Log On


   

Question 927562: I do not know how to prove "For the function f%28x%29=1%2F%281-x%29, prove that for all integers n>=0, +%28f%5En%29+%280%29=n%21+" by using induction.
Answer by richard1234(7193) About Me  (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website!
Is this even true? If n = 2, which is undefined.