SOLUTION: Is (p v q) → (~q → p) a tautology?

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Question 1150010: Is (p v q) → (~q → p) a tautology?
Answer by jim_thompson5910(35256) About Me  (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website!

p and q are any truth value statements. In other words, they are a variable that holds T or F
T = true
F = false

Start with a table showing off the various truth value combinations of p and q
pq
TT
TF
FT
FF


Then add on a ~q column which is the complete opposite of what the q column shows (true flips to false, and vice versa)
pq~q
TTF
TFT
FTF
FFT

We'll use this column later, but for now we'll add on a p v q column next.

The logical disjunction of two truth values is only false when both pieces are false. In other words, p v q = F when both p = F and q = F at the same time. Otherwise, p v q = T
pq~qp v q
TTFT
TFTT
FTFT
FFTF


Next we'll have a column for ~q --> p. This conditional is only false when ~q = T and p = F. So if we had T --> F, then that whole thing is false. Otherwise, the statement is true.
pq~qp v q~q -> p
TTFTT
TFTTT
FTFTT
FFTFF


Finally, the last step is to combine the columns p v q and ~q --> p
Let A = p v q and B = ~q --> p. The format we want is A --> B
pq~qp v q~q -> p(p v q) -> (~q -> p)
TTFTTT
TFTTTT
FTFTTT
FFTFFT

which is what the full completed truth table looks like

Note the last column has nothing but T. Each possible outcome leads to (p v q) --> (~q --> p) being a true statement.

Answer: Yes it is a tautology