Without actual division prove that
is exactly divisible by
. How can we prove that without actual division? I tried to understand but it's too tough for me. Thanks
.
First we factor
as
So
will be divisible by
if and only if both
and
are both factors
of
.
Now we know by the remainder theorem that if
were to be divided by
,
the remainder would have the same value as
with x replaced by +1.
Therefore the remainder of the division would be
.
And since the remainder is 0,
is
divisible by
. Now we do the same with the other
factor
:
As before we know by the remainder theorem that if
were to be divided by
, the
remainder would have the same value as
with x replaced by +2.
Therefore the remainder of the division would be
.
And since the remainder is 0,
is
also divisible by
.
And since
is divisible both
by
and
it is divisible by their
product
or
, and we didn't
do any division!
Edwin