Question 36414: Question
In large data sets(1,000 or more values),the mean is always one of the data values. Why would this be true or false?
Answer by ilana(307) (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website! I'd say false. Suppose you have 1,000 values, 500 of which are 1 and 500 of which are 3. Then the mean would be 2.
This is assuming the values don't all need to be unique. But if they need to be unique, you could do something like 1, 1001, 2, 1000, 3, 999, 4, 998, etc., which will also average to the same amount, 501, without 501 necessarily being one of the 1000 values.
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