SOLUTION: proof this statement using math induction : 1^3+2^3+...+n^3=(1+2+...+n)^2

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Question 1042569: proof this statement using math induction :
1^3+2^3+...+n^3=(1+2+...+n)^2

Found 2 solutions by Edwin McCravy, ikleyn:
Answer by Edwin McCravy(20054) About Me  (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website!

Prove Qn:  1%5E3%2B2%5E3%2B%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2Bn%5E3%22%22=%22%22%281%2B2%2B%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2Bn%29%5E2

First we will prove a well-known formula for the sum 
of the first n positive integers:

Pn: 1%2B2%2B%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2Bn%22%22=%22%22%28n%28n%2B1%29%29%2F2

Then we can square both sides and get:

%281%2B2%2B%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2Bn%29%5E2%22%22=%22%22%28%28n%28n%2B1%29%29%2F2%29%5E2

then we will prove

1%5E3%2B2%5E3%2B%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2Bn%5E3%22%22=%22%22%28+%28n%28n%2B1%29%29%2F2+%29%5E2

Then what we are to prove will be immediate.

----------------------------------

First induction proof for 

Pn:  1%2B2%2B%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2Bn%22%22=%22%22%28n%28n%2B1%29%29%2F2
 
First let's see what Pk+1 would be:

[That's always the first thing to do.  Before you 
start an induction proof,  you should calculate Pk+1 
to see where you're headed]:

To do that, replace n by k+1 in n%28n%2B1%29%2F2 to see
what the Pk+1 is, for that is what we are going for, 
and if we have that beforehand, we'll know when we 
have arrived and the proof is finished.

Substituting k+1 for n in n%28n%2B1%29%2F2, we have

%28k%2B1%29%28k%2B1%2B1%29%2F2 or %28k%2B1%29%28k%2B2%29%2F2 or %28k%5E2%2B3k%2B2%29%2F2

Now that we know what Pk+1 is, we know where we're 
going, 

and we'll know we have arrived if and when we get 
%28k%5E2%2B3k%2B2%29%2F2. 

So now we can start the proof:

P1:  substitute n=1, 1=1%281%2B1%29%2F2, which is 
clearly true.

Assume Pk: 1+%2B+2+%2B+3+%2B%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2B+k%22%22=%22%22k%28k%2B1%29%2F2

Add (k+1) to both sides:

1+%2B+2+%2B+3+%2B%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2Bk+%2B+%28k%2B1%29%22%22=%22%22k%28k%2B1%29%2F2+%2B+%28k%2B1%29

              %22%22=%22%22%28k%5E2%2Bk%29%2F2%2B2%28k%2B1%29%2F2

              %22%22=%22%22%28k%5E2%2Bk%29%2F2%2B2%28k%2B1%29%2F2

              %22%22=%22%22%28k%5E2%2Bk%29%2F2%2B%282k%2B2%29%2F2

              %22%22=%22%22%28k%5E2%2Bk%2B2k%2B2%29%2F2

              %22%22=%22%22%28k%5E2%2B3k%2B2%29%2F2

and now we see that we get the same Pk+1 as the one
that we found in the beginning that we were going 
for.

So the first proof is finished. Since P1 is true, 
P1 proves P2, P2 proves P3, P3 proves P4, etc., etc., 
ad infinitum.

------------------

Now we prove

Qn: 1%5E3%2B2%5E3%2B%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2Bn%5E3%22%22=%22%22%28+%28n%28n%2B1%29%29%2F2+%29%5E2 

As before, let's see what Qk+1 would be:

To do that, replace n by k+1 in %28n%28n%2B1%29%2F2%29%5E2 to 
see what the Qk+1 is.  That is what we are going for, 
and as before, if we have that beforehand, we'll know 
when we have arrived and the proof is finished.

Substituting k+1 for n in %28n%28n%2B1%29%2F2%29%5E2, we have

%28%28k%2B1%29%28k%2B1%2B1%29%2F2%29%5E2 or %28%28k%2B1%29%28k%2B2%29%2F2%29%5E2 or %28k%5E2%2B3k%2B2%29%5E2%2F4 or %28k%5E4%2B9k%5E2%2B4%2B6k%5E3%2B4k%5E2%2B12k%29%2F4 
or %28k%5E4%2B6k%5E3%2B13k%5E2%2B12k%2B4%29%2F4

Now that we know what Qk+1 is, we know where we're 
going, and we'll know we have arrived if and when we 
get %28k%5E4%2B6k%5E3%2B13k%5E2%2B12k%2B4%29%2F4. 

So now we can start the second proof:

Q1:  substitute n=1, 1=%281%281%2B1%29%2F2%29%5E2, which is clearly 
true.

Assume Qk: 1%5E3%2B2%5E3%2B3%5E3%2B%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2Bk%5E3%22%22=%22%22%28%28k%28k%2B1%29%29%2F2%29%5E2

Add (k+1)³ to both sides:

1%5E3%2B2%5E3%2B3%5E3%2B%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2A%22%22%2Bk%5E3%2B+%28k%2B1%29%5E3%22%22=%22%22%28k%28k%2B1%29%2F2%29%5E2+%2B%28k%2B1%29%5E3

                  %22%22=%22%22%28k%5E2%2Bk%29%5E2%2F4%2Bk%5E3%2B3k%5E2%2B3k%2B1

                  %22%22=%22%22%28k%5E4%2B2k%5E3%2Bk%5E2%29%2F4%2Bk%5E3%2B3k%5E2%2B3k%2B1

                  %22%22=%22%22%28k%5E4%2B2k%5E3%2Bk%5E2%29%2F4%2B4%28k%5E3%2B3k%5E2%2B3k%2B1%29%2F4

                  %22%22=%22%22%28k%5E4%2B2k%5E3%2Bk%5E2%29%2F4%2B4k%5E3%2B12k%5E2%2B12k%2B4%29%2F4

                  %22%22=%22%22%28k%5E4%2B2k%5E3%2Bk%5E2%2B4k%5E3%2B12k%5E2%2B12k%2B4%29%2F4

                  %22%22=%22%22%28k%5E4%2B6k%5E3%2B13k%5E2%2B12k%2B4%29%2F4

and now we see that we get the same Qk+1 as the one 
that we found in the beginning that we were going for.

So the second proof is finished. Since Q1 is true, 
Q1 proves Q2, Q2 proves Q3, Q3 proves Q4, etc., etc., 
ad infinitum.
 
Edwin


Answer by ikleyn(52777) About Me  (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website!
.
See the lesson
    - Mathematical induction for sequences other than arithmetic or geometric, Problem 2
in this site.

https://www.algebra.com/algebra/homework/Sequences-and-series/Mathematical-induction-for-sequences-other-than-arithmetic-or-geometric.lesson