That doesn't make any sense, because although it makes sense
to speak of a point being a solution for an inequality, it
doesn't make any sense to speak the vice-versa, of "an
inequality being a solution for a point."
If we substitute x=0 and y=-4 in all three inequalities:
Then simplify all three:
Then finish simplifying:
We see that the point (0,-4) is a solution to the first two
inequalities, but not the third one.
If you want to discuss this, tell me about it in the thank-you
note form below and I'll get back to you by email. There is
never any charge. I do this for fun.
Edwin
