To be surjective, every number in the second set must be
obtainable by choosing a number in the first set and substituting
it for x in the equation f(x)=x2.
f:R to R f(x)=x2 is it a surjective function???
No. The first and second sets are both R. No value of x in the
first set R will result in a negative number when you square it.
Thus, for instance, the number -4 is in the second set R, but
there is no number in the first set, that you can substitute
for x in f(x)=x2 and get -4.
if f:N to N then is the above function surjective??
No because no number in the first set N when squared gives
2,3,5,6,7,8,10,... or any non-square integer, yet those non-square
integers are all in the second set N.
Edwin