SOLUTION: may you help me solve this question : a function is defined as f:ℝ\{0,2π}→ℝ with f(x)=(3x-2)/(1+x), is this a bijective function and why?. thanks
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Question 811398: may you help me solve this question : a function is defined as f:ℝ\{0,2π}→ℝ with f(x)=(3x-2)/(1+x), is this a bijective function and why?. thanks Answer by solver91311(24713) (Show Source):
Yes, it is bijective. For every value in the domain, there is EXACTLY one value in the range AND for every value in the range, there is EXACTLY one value in the domain. Which is to say that BOTH the function AND its inverse are functions. You can also say that the function passes both the horizontal and vertical line tests over the given domain.
John
Egw to Beta kai to Sigma
My calculator said it, I believe it, that settles it
