SOLUTION: let f:A∋B:g:B∋C be function then prove that (gof)¯¹ =f¯¹

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Question 1094668: let f:A∋B:g:B∋C be function then prove that (gof)¯¹ =f¯¹

Answer by ikleyn(52798) About Me  (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website!
.
To improve your knowledge in the area

look into and learn from this link

https://www.whitman.edu/mathematics/higher_math_online/section04.06.html

Your question is Example 4.6.7 of that document.