SOLUTION: (a) Let f(x): (-inf, 0) U (0 inf) --> R be defined by f(x) = x- (1/x)
Show that f(x) has no inverse function.
(b) Let g(x): (), inf) --> R be defined by gx) = x- (1/x)
Show that
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-> SOLUTION: (a) Let f(x): (-inf, 0) U (0 inf) --> R be defined by f(x) = x- (1/x)
Show that f(x) has no inverse function.
(b) Let g(x): (), inf) --> R be defined by gx) = x- (1/x)
Show that
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Question 1171008: (a) Let f(x): (-inf, 0) U (0 inf) --> R be defined by f(x) = x- (1/x)
Show that f(x) has no inverse function.
(b) Let g(x): (), inf) --> R be defined by gx) = x- (1/x)
Show that g(x) has an inverse function.
I know I asked this question before, but I didn't really understand the answer, so can you please explain in detail? I don't really get inverse functions. A million thanks for your time. Answer by ikleyn(52750) (Show Source):
