SOLUTION: show that the given function is one-to-one and find its inverse. Check your
answers algebraically and graphically. Verify that the range of f is the domain of f^−1 and vice-vers
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-> SOLUTION: show that the given function is one-to-one and find its inverse. Check your
answers algebraically and graphically. Verify that the range of f is the domain of f^−1 and vice-vers
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Question 1135135: show that the given function is one-to-one and find its inverse. Check your
answers algebraically and graphically. Verify that the range of f is the domain of f^−1 and vice-versa.
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show that the given function is one-to-one and find its inverse. Check your
answers algebraically and graphically. Verify that the range of f is the domain of f^−1 and vice-versa.
It is a 1-1 function if it passes both the line test and the line test.
if implies that a=b, then is 1-1
so, your function is injective (one-to-one)
inverse:
...... ......swap and .......solve for .........square both sides
The solution by tutor @MathLover1 appears to be complete and correct (I didn't look at all the details).
But for many relatively simple functions, there is an easier way to find the inverse, based on the idea that an inverse function has to "get you back where you started". Finding the function that gets you back where you started means looking at the operations the function performs on the input and performing the opposite operations in the opposite order.
In this example, the operations performed on the input by the function are
(1) subtract 1
(2) take the square root
(3) multiply by 3
(4) subtract 4
To get you back where you started, the inverse function has to
(1) add 4
(2) divide by 3
(3) square
(4) add 1
So the inverse function is
Looks a lot different than the inverse function shown by the other tutor; but they are equivalent.