Question 31131: At the beginning of the 12th century Bhaskara claimed that n / 0 equals an infinite quantity. Why might this be a reasonable conjecture? Can we use it as a rule of arthmetic? If not, what goes wrong?
Answer by longjonsilver(2297)   (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website! no idea of the real reasons either philosophically or mathematically, but it says "how many times does nothing go into the number n?".
The answer is plainly not zero times. Neither is it another number of times. We just do not know, since we have no information on the number of times to split n. Hence, the answer is an infinite number of ways, since we just do not know.
Also, look at 10/1 -> answer is 10
now look at 10/0.1 --> answer is 100
now look at 10/0.01 --> answer is 1000
etc
so, as the denominator gets closer and closer to zero, so the answer increases and increases. The limit would be "as the denominator tends towards zero, so the answer tends towards infinity"
Hope this helps
jon.
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