It's equal to 1.
But the converse is not true.
is meaningless.
Since you are given that (xyz)^0 = 1 then you are certain that
none of x,y, and z are 0, because if one of them were, then
(xyz)^0 would be meaningless, not 1.
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But suppose it had been this way instead:
if (x+y+z)^0 is equal to 1
then what is (xyz)^0 ?
Then if x and y were 1 and z were 0 then
would be
and
that would be 1. But then
would be meaningless, not 1, for it would be
Edwin