Question 148317: Let f(x) = 1/x. Show that (f * f)(x) = x for all nonzero value of x.
Thank you for your help ahead of time.
It's very appeciated. Answer by stanbon(75887) (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website! Let f(x) = 1/x. Show that (f * f)(x) = x for all nonzero value of x.
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Comment: (f*f)(x) means [f(x)*f(x)].
In your case that would be 1/x^2
I don't think you want that.
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I think what you want is fof(x) which means f[f(x)] = f(1/x)] 1/(1/x) = x
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Cheers,
Stan H.