document.write( "Question 981965: 1. Q > ~Q
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\n" ); document.write( "\n" ); document.write( "Can somebody solve this proof please? Thank you :)
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Algebra.Com's Answer #602848 by jim_thompson5910(35256)\"\" \"About 
You can put this solution on YOUR website!
You can do a proof by contradiction.\r
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\n" ); document.write( "\n" ); document.write( "Step 1) assume the complete opposite of the conclusion. Assume (G & ~U)\r
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\n" ); document.write( "\n" ); document.write( "Step 2) Use simplification to get ~U\r
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\n" ); document.write( "\n" ); document.write( "Step 3) Use modus tollens with line 2 and ~U to get ~~(G & Q) which turns into (G & Q)\r
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\n" ); document.write( "\n" ); document.write( "Step 4) Simplification frees up Q\r
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\n" ); document.write( "\n" ); document.write( "Step 5) Modus ponens on line 1, and using the freed up Q from step 4, consequently frees up ~Q\r
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\n" ); document.write( "\n" ); document.write( "Step 6) We have Q and ~Q they conjunct to (Q & ~Q) which is always false. This is a contradiction.\r
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\n" ); document.write( "\n" ); document.write( "Since we have a contradiction, the initial assumption (G & ~U) is false which makes the opposite true. That proves ~(G & ~U) is a proper conclusion.
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