document.write( "Question 702823: Suppose f is a function with range (-∞,∞) and g is a function with domain (0, ∞). Is it possible that g and f are inverse functions? Explain. \n" ); document.write( "
Algebra.Com's Answer #433185 by Edwin McCravy(20065)\"\" \"About 
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No, because the domain of a one-to-one function must be the
\n" ); document.write( "range of its inverse, and vice-versa, that is, the range of a
\n" ); document.write( "one-to-one function must be the domain of its inverse.
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