SOLUTION: Why is this true? P(z>b)=P(z<-b) for any value of b?

SOLUTION: Why is this true? P(z>b)=P(z<-b) for any value of b?

Algebra.Com

Question 866851: Why is this true?
P(z>b)=P(z<-b) for any value of b?
Answer by Fombitz(32388) (Show Source): You can put this solution on YOUR website!
Because the function is symmetric about z=0.

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