SOLUTION: Why is the exact value of sin(inverse-1) -1 = -pi/2?

Question 423455: Why is the exact value of sin(inverse-1) -1 = -pi/2?
Answer by stanbon(75887) (Show Source): You can put this solution on YOUR website!
Why is the exact value of sin(inverse-1) -1 = -pi/2?
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sin^-1(-1) = -pi/2
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sin^-1(x) means "the angle whose sine is x".
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So your problem says "the angle whose sine is -1 is -pi/2",
and this is a true statement. That is, the sin of (-pi/2)
is -1.
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Cheers,
Stan H.
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