SOLUTION: Let f x = tan(x/2) Show that f({{{2pi}}}) = f({{{4pi}}}) but there is no number c in the closed interval [{{{2pi}}},{{{4pi}}}] such that f'(c) = 0. Why does this not contradict

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Question 683369: Let f x = tan(x/2)
Show that f() = f() but there is no number c in the
closed interval [,] such that f'(c) = 0. Why does this not contradict Rolle's Theorem?

Answer by Edwin McCravy(20064)   (Show Source): You can put this solution on YOUR website!
Let f(x) = tan()
Show that f() = f() but there is no number c in the
closed interval [,] such that f'(c) = 0.
f() = tan() = tan( = 0
f() = tan() = tan( = 0

f'(x) = secē()

The secant function is never 0, so there can be no value
of c such that f'(c) = 0 on that interval.
   

Why does this not contradict Rolle's Theorem?
Because Rolle's theorem only says there is such a number c on closed interval
[a,b] in which the function is everywhere defined, continuous and differentiable 
on the closed interval [a,b].  Rolle's theorem is not violated since 
f(x) = tan() is not continuous and differentiable everywhere on the
closed interval [,] for f(x) is not defined ar x = 
which is on the closed interval [,].

Edwin





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