SOLUTION: I do not know how to prove "For the function {{{f(x)=1/(1-x)}}}, prove that for all integers n>=0, {{{ (f^n) (0)=n! }}}" by using induction.
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Question 927562: I do not know how to prove "For the function , prove that for all integers n>=0, " by using induction.
Answer by richard1234(7193) (Show Source): You can put this solution on YOUR website!
Is this even true? If n = 2,  = f(f(0)) = f(1))
which is undefined.
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