SOLUTION: Show that if(~Pv~Q)then (~P&~Q) is equivalent to if (PvQ) then (P&Q)

Question 353568: Show that
if(~Pv~Q)then (~P&~Q)
is equivalent to
if (PvQ) then (P&Q)
Answer by Edwin McCravy(20055) (Show Source): You can put this solution on YOUR website!

(~Pv~Q)->(~P&~Q)

Use deMorgan's law on both sides of ->

~(P&Q)-> ~(PvQ)

Replacing by the equivalent contrapositive:

~[~(PvQ)]->~[(P&Q)]

By double negation

 (PvQ)->(P&Q)

which was to be shown equivalent to the original expression.

Edwin

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