SOLUTION: If n = 100 and p = 0.02 in a binomial experiment, does this satisfy the rule for a normal approximation? Why or why not?
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Question 687751: If n = 100 and p = 0.02 in a binomial experiment, does this satisfy the rule for a normal approximation? Why or why not?
Answer by jim_thompson5910(35256) (Show Source): You can put this solution on YOUR website!
np = 100*0.02 = 2 which is NOT greater than 5. So because np > 5 is false, the normal approximation doesn't apply.
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