SOLUTION: I'm not sure if I'm understanding this problem. Can anyone provide a step-by-step explanation?
Given a binomial distribution with n = 22 and p = 0.78, would the normal distribut
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Question 619226: I'm not sure if I'm understanding this problem. Can anyone provide a step-by-step explanation?
Given a binomial distribution with n = 22 and p = 0.78, would the normal distribution provide a reasonable approximation? Why or why not?
Answer by Theo(13342) (Show Source): You can put this solution on YOUR website!
n = 22
p = .78
the rules for whether the normal distribution would be a good approximation for the binomial distribution are:
here's one explanation:
http://www.talkstats.com/showthread.php/724-The-Normal-Approximation-to-the-Binomial-Distribution
here's another explanation that give you a little more information:
http://math.tntech.edu/ISR/Elementary_Statistics/chapter7/thispage/newnode6.html
basic rule of thumb:
n*p > 5 and n*q > 5 then normal approximation is good.
q is equal to 1 - p
p is the probability of success
q is the probability of failure
n is the number of items in the sample
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