SOLUTION: Why is the normal distribution not a good approximation of a binomial distribution that has a value of p close to 0 or 1?
Algebra.Com
Question 245729: Why is the normal distribution not a good approximation of a binomial distribution that has a value of p close to 0 or 1?
Answer by stanbon(75887) (Show Source): You can put this solution on YOUR website!
Normal is a symmetric distribution
p = 0 is heavily skewed to the left
and p = 1 is heavily skewed to the right.
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Cheers,
Stan H.
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