Without actual division prove that is exactly divisible by . How can we prove that without actual division? I tried to understand but it's too tough for me. Thanks
.
First we factor as
So will be divisible by
if and only if both and are both factors
of .
Now we know by the remainder theorem that if
were to be divided by ,
the remainder would have the same value as
with x replaced by +1.
Therefore the remainder of the division would be
.
And since the remainder is 0, is
divisible by . Now we do the same with the other
factor :
As before we know by the remainder theorem that if
were to be divided by , the
remainder would have the same value as
with x replaced by +2.
Therefore the remainder of the division would be
.
And since the remainder is 0, is
also divisible by .
And since is divisible both
by and it is divisible by their
product or , and we didn't
do any division!
Edwin