You can
put this solution on YOUR website!I guess where I'm most stuck is the goal -- is 2P(n,1) equal to 2(n!/(n-1)!)?
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Yes, since P(n,1) = n!/(n-1)!, 2P(n,1) is 2[n!/(n-1)!]
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After showing the form works for n=2, and assuming it is true for n=k,
you want to show that if n=k+1, P(k+2,2)-P(k+1,2) = 2P(k+1,1)
That can be written as:
[(k+2)!/(k)!] - [(k+1)!/(k-1)!] = 2[(k+1)!/k!]
(k+2)(k+1) - (k+1)k =2[(k+1)]
k^2+3k+2 -k^2-k = 2k+2
2k+2 = 2k+2
That's the proof.
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Cheers,
Stan H.