Suppose that you have $10,000 in a rather risky investment recommended by your financial adviser. During the first year, your investment decreases by 30% of its original value. During the 2nd year, your investment increases by 40% of its first year value. Your adviser tells you that there must have been a 10% overall increase of your original $10,000 investment. Is your financial adviser using percentages properly? If not, what is your actual percent gain or loss of your original $10000 investment? 
Please show steps to solve.
Thank you
(1 - .3)(1 + .4) = .7(1.4) = .98.
So, its value