That doesn't make any sense, because although it makes sense
to speak of a point being a solution for an inequality, it 
doesn't make any sense to speak the vice-versa, of "an 
inequality being a solution for a point."

If we substitute x=0 and y=-4 in all three inequalities:



Then simplify all three:

  

Then finish simplifying:



We see that the point (0,-4) is a solution to the first two
inequalities, but not the third one.   

If you want to discuss this, tell me about it in the thank-you
note form below and I'll get back to you by email.  There is
never any charge.  I do this for fun.

Edwin