The question suggests that changing the slope of a line changes the intercepts.
Let's try to disprove that. y=x is a line with slope 1 and y-intercept 0 (y=1z+0). If the slope changes does the intercept change? Not necessarily. y=3x is a line with slope 3, but the y intercept is still 0 (y=3x+0). Changing the slope didn't change the intercepts.
Does changing the intercepts change the slope? Not necessarily. y=3x+2 has a slope=3 and y-intercept =2. Change the intercept with y=3x+3. The slope=3, but the intercept=3. Changing the intercept didn't change the slope.
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