SOLUTION: I am not understanding how it is possible for an inequality to consist of one number. I know inequalities are numerous so how can it only be one number?
Algebra.Com
Question 137060: I am not understanding how it is possible for an inequality to consist of one number. I know inequalities are numerous so how can it only be one number?
Answer by stanbon(75887) (Show Source): You can put this solution on YOUR website!
Let's say the answers are limited to the counting numbers.
Then 2 < x < 4 is only true for x=3
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Cheers,
Stan H.
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