SOLUTION: *True OR false*
IF f’(x) =g’(x) then
f(x) - g(x) = zero
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Question 1158582: *True OR false*
IF f’(x) =g’(x) then
f(x) - g(x) = zero
Found 2 solutions by greenestamps, MathLover1:
Answer by greenestamps(13200) (Show Source): You can put this solution on YOUR website!
False.
f(x) and g(x) can differ by a constant.
Example:
f(x) = 2x; g(x) = 2x+5
f'(x) = 2; g'(x) = 2
If you think of the derivative as giving the slope of the graph of a linear equation, the statement shown would say that if two lines have the same slope then they are the same line. Obviously that is not true.
Answer by MathLover1(20849) (Show Source): You can put this solution on YOUR website!
IF ’ =’ then
=>
explanation:
->according to mean value theorem: If ’ =’for all in an interval (,) then in this interval we have
where is .
so, ’ =’ then = some constant would be true
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