SOLUTION: Explain why f(f–1(x)) is x.
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Question 601913: Explain why f(f–1(x)) is x.
Answer by richard1234(7193) (Show Source): You can put this solution on YOUR website!
A function f maps points or numbers from a set A to another set B. Therefore f^(-1) will map points from set B to set A. If f is bijective (one-to-one), then f will have an inverse function, and ) = x)
because you're mapping A to B, back to A.
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