SOLUTION: let f:A∋B:g:B∋C be function then prove that (gof)¯¹ =f¯¹
Algebra.Com
Question 1094668: let f:A∋B:g:B∋C be function then prove that (gof)¯¹ =f¯¹
Answer by ikleyn(52803) (Show Source): You can put this solution on YOUR website!
.
To improve your knowledge in the area
look into and learn from this link
https://www.whitman.edu/mathematics/higher_math_online/section04.06.html
Your question is Example 4.6.7 of that document.
RELATED QUESTIONS
Let f : A ——> B and g : B ——> C , two bijective functions. Prove that g•f is... (answered by robertb)
My teacher likes to throw in a fun problem sometimes to see what we come up. Honestly I... (answered by josgarithmetic)
3.15
For f(x)=9x and g(x)=x+9, find the following functions:
A. (fog)(x)=
B.... (answered by ikleyn)
3.22
For f(x)=x+5 and g(x)=4x+4, find the following functions:
a. (fog)(x)=
b.... (answered by dkppathak)
3.15
For f(x)=6x and g(x)=x+1, find the following functions:
a. (fog)(x)=
b.... (answered by Cromlix)
Given: f(x)= 5x^2-7x+3 and g(x)= 4x+9;
Find:
a. (fog)(x)
b. (gof)(x)
c. Find... (answered by josgarithmetic)
Please show me how to solve this problem:
Let f(x)=x2(x square) and g(x)=x+4 and find
(answered by qwe123a)
For the given functions f and g, find the requested composite function value.
Given... (answered by stanbon)
Let h and j be function whose first and second derivatives exist on interval I. Which of... (answered by robertb)