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Is this statement true or false and why?
If you are given the 2 functions of and you can calculate(f ○ g) only if the range of is a subset of the domain of
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1. In order for calculate (fog)(x) for the given "x", g(x) for given "x" must lie in the domain of the function f.
2. In order for calculate (fog)(x) for all x from the domain of the function g, the range of g ("the image of g")
must lie in the domain of the function f.
Your original statement is slightly ambiguous.
It is not clear, does it relate to all "x" from the domain of g, or only to a concrete given element "x".
But my response resolves all the questions.
I hope.