SOLUTION: why does any base to the zero power = 1

Question 73649: why does any base to the zero power = 1
Answer by jim_thompson5910(35256) (Show Source): You can put this solution on YOUR website!
When you say you're saying that you're multiplying 2 x's. When you go from to you're going to multiply x by (ie . To undo this, you divide. So if I go from x^3 to x^2, I'm saying and I get x^2. So in a sense this applies , with the example showing why it's true. So if I go from x^1 (which is x) to x^0 I would do this:
and it will hold true for any x. Hope this makes sense.
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