SOLUTION: Hi i hope i dont confuse you with this. The thing is ive tried to figure out what it's asking me.. but i dont know what to do. The intergral from 0 to 1 sign i couldnt find. So i h

Question 139527: Hi i hope i dont confuse you with this. The thing is ive tried to figure out what it's asking me.. but i dont know what to do. The intergral from 0 to 1 sign i couldnt find. So i hope you get it. Thanks alot.

For V = C[0,1] with inner product = intergral from 0 to 1 f(x)g(x)dx if f(0) = 0 = f(1) show that f'(x) and f(x) are orthogonal.
Answer by oscargut(2103) (Show Source): You can put this solution on YOUR website!
I think you have to prove that f(x) and f'(x)
integral from 0 to 1 of f(x)f'(x) is f(x)f(x)/2 evaluated
then integral from 0 to 1 of f(x)f'(x)= f(1)f(1)/2 - f(0)f(0)/2 = 0
then f and f' are orthogonal
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